1 Corinthians 8:6 NWT
there is actually to us one God, the Father, from whom all things are and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are and we through him.
JWs use this verse to substantiate their claim that Jesus is not God.
Does the fact that Jesus is called the "one Lord" in this verse mean that the Father (Jehovah) is not Lord? Why not?
Matthew 11:25 NWT
At that time Jesus said in response: “I publicly praise you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have hidden these things from the wise and intellectual ones and have revealed them to young children.
* It's faulty logic to assume that the use of a title for one person in one context automatically rules out its application to another person in another context.